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Which of the following statements is/are false?

  1. If a context-free grammar $\mathrm{G}$ is in Chomsky's normal form, then $\mathrm{G}$ is not ambiguous.
  2. For every number $n$, the language $\text{L}_n=\left\{0^n 1^n\right\}$ is regular.
  3. If $\mathrm{L}^{\ast }$ is regular then $\mathrm{L}$ is regular.
  4. If there's a $10$-state NFA that accepts $\text{L}$ then there's a $100$-state DFA that accepts $\mathrm{L}$.
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1 Answer

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Option A:
Does transforming a CFG to Chomsky's normal form make it unambiguous?
The answer is No.

There are inherently ambiguous context-free languages, and like all context-free languages they have grammars in Chomsky's normal form, so transforming a CFG to Chomsky's normal form doesn't necessarily make it unambiguous. For the same reason there is no technique to convert an arbitrary context-free grammar to one which is unambiguous.

Deciding whether a given context-free grammar is ambiguous, or whether a given context-free grammar generates an inherently ambiguous language, is undecidable.

Option B:
For any $n$, it is a finite language with only one string. So, it is regular for every $n$.

Option C:
Take $\text{L}=\left\{a^p \mid p\right.$ is prime $\}$; is non-regular but $\text{L}^*$ is regular.

Option D:
If there's a $10$-state NFA that accepts $\text{L}$ then there's definitely a $1024$-states DFA that accepts $\text{L},$ but cannot say conclude that a $100$ state DFA.
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